#8 Disorder of the Decrees
Christ, by God's plan, is the sure foundation of salvation.
Who verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you (1 Peter 1:20)
When talking about God's plan, theologians talk about the order of the decrees. This is a logical, not a temporal order. Because this plan was from the foundation of the world, the issue is logically what is based on what, not temporally, which came first. On this issue Calvinists come in 3 flavors: supralapsarian, sublapsarian/infralapsarian and Amyraldian. Amyraldian's teach that Christ died for everyone. Sublapsarian/infralapsarians say God first decreed the fall, then elected some for salvation. Supralapsarians say God first elected some for glory other for destruction, then He decreed the fall.
The question at hand is relationship between the decree that Christ the foundation of salvation and the decree of salvation. What is the relationship between Christ's death and predestination?
Arminains and Amyraldians teach that God first choose Christ to be the foundation of salvation, then choose to save us. Supra and sub lapsarians teach God first choose us, then Christ.
This site has a nice table listing out the various views and orders of the decrees:
http://www.theopedia.com/Order_of_God
The implications on the extent of Christ's death is vast. How could Christ die only for the elect, if God had not yet decreed election? If the election of Christ comes first, Christ died for all. If God first elected, Christ could have died just for the elect.
In Ephesians 1 Paul says:
4According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love:
5Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to
the good pleasure of his will,
We are chosen in Him, meaning Christ. Christ is the basis of our election and the foundation of our salvation. It doesn't make sense for God to choose us for salvation if He hasn't already chosen Christ as the Savior. Worse, it dishonors Christ if the Father has without Christ already made our salvation certain. Christ becomes the means the Father uses to save. The Father's decree, not Christ becomes the foundation of salvation.
So it makes sense that Christ was chosen before us. But if there were no elect (only sinners) when Christ's mission was decreed, how then could He be sent for the elect alone?
Who verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you (1 Peter 1:20)
When talking about God's plan, theologians talk about the order of the decrees. This is a logical, not a temporal order. Because this plan was from the foundation of the world, the issue is logically what is based on what, not temporally, which came first. On this issue Calvinists come in 3 flavors: supralapsarian, sublapsarian/infralapsarian and Amyraldian. Amyraldian's teach that Christ died for everyone. Sublapsarian/infralapsarians say God first decreed the fall, then elected some for salvation. Supralapsarians say God first elected some for glory other for destruction, then He decreed the fall.
The question at hand is relationship between the decree that Christ the foundation of salvation and the decree of salvation. What is the relationship between Christ's death and predestination?
Arminains and Amyraldians teach that God first choose Christ to be the foundation of salvation, then choose to save us. Supra and sub lapsarians teach God first choose us, then Christ.
This site has a nice table listing out the various views and orders of the decrees:
http://www.theopedia.com/Order_of_God
The implications on the extent of Christ's death is vast. How could Christ die only for the elect, if God had not yet decreed election? If the election of Christ comes first, Christ died for all. If God first elected, Christ could have died just for the elect.
In Ephesians 1 Paul says:
4According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love:
5Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to
the good pleasure of his will,
We are chosen in Him, meaning Christ. Christ is the basis of our election and the foundation of our salvation. It doesn't make sense for God to choose us for salvation if He hasn't already chosen Christ as the Savior. Worse, it dishonors Christ if the Father has without Christ already made our salvation certain. Christ becomes the means the Father uses to save. The Father's decree, not Christ becomes the foundation of salvation.
So it makes sense that Christ was chosen before us. But if there were no elect (only sinners) when Christ's mission was decreed, how then could He be sent for the elect alone?
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